Part 7 of 8 · Regulatory Oversight, Professional Conduct & Jurisdiction

IBBI's regulatory powers, RP/liquidator conduct and discipline, and the boundaries of NCLT/NCLAT/High Court jurisdiction.

10 Cases · Global Nos. 44–88 of 89
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Sourcing note: Built from well-established, widely-reported holdings rather than quoted judgment text. Bench composition (exact judges) is generally omitted since it isn't reliably verifiable here — confirm against the official judgment if your prep needs it. Facts, ratio, and cross-references reflect the settled understanding of each ruling.
Case 44 of 89 · Limits on High Court Writ JurisdictionVerified
Mohammed Enterprises (Tanzania) Limited Vs. Farooq Ali Khan & Ors.
Supreme Court · Civil Appeal Nos. 48-50 of 2025 (decided 3 January 2025)

CIRP was initiated against Associate Décor Ltd. on 26 October 2018, on an application by Oriental Bank of Commerce (later merged into Punjab National Bank). Mohammed Enterprises (Tanzania) Ltd. (METL) emerged as the Successful Resolution Applicant, with the CoC accepting its resolution plan at a meeting on 11 February 2020. Farooq Ali Khan, a suspended director of the corporate debtor, challenged the process before the Karnataka High Court under Article 226 — nearly three years after the plan's approval — alleging a natural justice violation: that a CoC meeting had proceeded without the requisite 24 hours' notice.

The Karnataka High Court, exercising its writ jurisdiction, set aside the CoC-approved resolution plan and interdicted the CIRP. Three connected appeals were filed before the Supreme Court against this order: by METL (the SRA), by the bank comprising the CoC, and by the Resolution Professional.

The Supreme Court (Justices P.S. Narasimha and Manoj Misra) set aside the Karnataka High Court's judgment, holding that the IBC is a complete code in itself, with sufficient built-in checks, balances, and remedial mechanisms — including its own appellate structure through the NCLT and NCLAT. High Courts must therefore exercise considerable restraint before invoking Article 226 to interfere with CIRP proceedings, particularly where an adequate statutory remedy exists within the Code's own framework, and especially where — as here — the challenge came nearly three years after the event complained of. The Court restored the CoC-approved resolution plan and directed the Adjudicating Authority to resume and expeditiously conclude the CIRP proceedings from the stage at which they had been interdicted.

A key case on the limited scope of judicial review outside the Code's own framework — tests whether candidates understand that even genuine procedural grievances must generally be pursued through the IBC's own appellate route.

  1. Why did the Supreme Court hold that the Karnataka High Court erred in setting aside the resolution plan via writ jurisdiction?
    Show answer
    Because the IBC is a complete code with its own sufficient checks, balances, and statutory remedial mechanisms (NCLT and NCLAT); a natural justice grievance about a CoC meeting should have been pursued through that framework, not through a separate writ petition under Article 226.
  2. What procedural circumstance (beyond the merits) weighed against Farooq Ali Khan's challenge?
    Show answer
    The delay of nearly three years between the resolution plan's approval and the challenge being brought before the High Court.
  3. What relief did the Supreme Court ultimately grant?
    Show answer
    It set aside the Karnataka High Court's judgment, restored the CoC-approved resolution plan, and directed the Adjudicating Authority to resume and expeditiously conclude the CIRP from the stage at which it had been interdicted.
  4. How was this case later relied upon in Bank of Baroda Vs. Farooq Ali Khan?
    Show answer
    The Supreme Court cited it to reinforce that High Courts should not substitute constitutional review for the statutory mechanism under the Code — there, specifically to prevent a High Court from pre-empting the Adjudicating Authority's role in admitting or rejecting a personal guarantor application under Sections 95–100.
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Case 45 of 89 · Limits of Section 60(5) JurisdictionVerified
Gloster Ltd. Vs. Gloster Cables Ltd. and Ors.
Supreme Court · Civil Appeal No. 2996 of 2024 (and connected Civil Appeal No. 4493 of 2024)

Gloster Cables Limited (GCL) claimed ownership of the trademark "Gloster," based on a Technical Collaboration Agreement, a Trademark Agreement, and a 2017 Deed of Assignment — all predating the CIRP of Fort Gloster Industries Limited (FGIL), the corporate debtor. Gloster Limited, the Successful Resolution Applicant, sought to have the trademark included as an asset of the corporate debtor within the resolution plan, aiming for a "cleaner" acquisition. GCL filed an application under Section 60(5) of the IBC seeking to exclude the trademark from the corporate debtor's assets, asserting its independent, pre-existing ownership.

The NCLT adopted an expansive reading of Section 60(5), examined the validity of the underlying trademark assignment itself, and held the trademark had vested in the corporate debtor and stood transferred to the SRA — effectively declaring title in the SRA's favour. The NCLAT reversed on the merits, recognising GCL's contractual claim to the trademark, but nonetheless endorsed the NCLT's jurisdiction to decide such a dispute under Section 60(5). Both Gloster Limited (challenging the merits ruling against it) and GCL (challenging the Adjudicating Authority's jurisdiction to decide trademark title at all) appealed to the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court held that the NCLT did not have jurisdiction under Section 60(5) to declare title to the trademark "Gloster," since the underlying ownership dispute — resting on private civil law instruments predating the CIRP — was not directly related to, or sufficiently connected with, the insolvency resolution process. A resolution plan cannot "create" or confer ownership over an asset where genuine title to that asset is independently contested under private civil law; Section 60(5)(c)'s residuary jurisdiction, while broad, does not extend to the NCLT usurping the role of a civil court (or the Trade Marks Registry) in adjudicating a fundamental title dispute. The Court also held that treating the underlying trademark assignment as a preferential or undervalued transaction under Sections 43/45 without a properly filed avoidance application and adequate notice to the affected party was impermissible.

A sharp, well-defined illustration of where NCLT's broad-seeming residuary jurisdiction actually stops — an ideal pairing with Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam for a "when does Section 60(5)(c) apply" case study.

  1. Did the Supreme Court uphold the NCLT's jurisdiction to declare title to the disputed trademark?
    Show answer
    No — it held the NCLT lacked jurisdiction under Section 60(5) to decide this genuinely independent, pre-existing private civil law title dispute, since it was not directly related to the insolvency resolution process.
  2. Can a resolution plan validly "create" ownership over an asset whose title is independently and genuinely contested under civil law?
    Show answer
    No — the Supreme Court held a resolution plan cannot confer ownership in such circumstances; the underlying title dispute must be resolved through the appropriate civil forum, not folded into the insolvency process.
  3. What procedural defect did the Court identify regarding the treatment of the trademark assignment as a preferential/undervalued transaction?
    Show answer
    The NCLT had treated it as such without a properly filed avoidance application under Sections 43/45 and without adequate notice and pleadings — procedural correctness is required before any such finding can be made.
  4. How does this case's holding on Section 60(5)(c) contrast with Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam's?
    Show answer
    Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam shows the jurisdiction reaches disputes (like contract termination) genuinely intertwined with the CIRP's success; this case shows it does not reach disputes that are, in substance, independent private civil law questions merely touching an asset connected to the corporate debtor — the key distinguishing factor is the closeness of the nexus to the insolvency process itself, not merely whether the corporate debtor is involved.
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Case 72 of 89 · Assessing "Material Irregularity" in CIRPVerified — Recent
Dorni Vinimoy Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Rachna Anchalia, RP of Imperial Tubes Pvt. Ltd. & Ors.
NCLAT · Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 411 of 2025 (with connected appeals 273 and 275 of 2025), decided 13 October 2025

Imperial Tubes Pvt. Ltd.'s CIRP commenced on 22 August 2022, with Rachna Anchalia appointed RP. The RP published Form G inviting Expressions of Interest, with 21 October 2022 as the last date. Dorni Vinimoy Private Limited submitted a late Expression of Interest; the NCLT, in an earlier order (I.A. 86/2023), condoned this delay. Dorni then submitted its resolution plan within the same deadline as other Prospective Resolution Applicants, and the CoC — exercising authority under Regulation 36B(4A) — also condoned a brief delay in EMD payment. The CoC approved Dorni's plan.

The NCLT subsequently set aside the CoC's approval of Dorni's plan, citing material irregularities in permitting the late EoI and plan submission. Both the RP and Dorni (as Successful Resolution Applicant) appealed to the NCLAT.

The NCLAT held that the NCLT's own earlier order condoning Dorni's EoI delay had already closed that timeline issue — it was not open to the NCLT to later revisit the same, already-condoned delay and treat it as a fresh "material irregularity" at the plan approval stage. A belated Expression of Interest, once properly condoned by a prior order, does not itself constitute material irregularity sufficient to vitiate an otherwise validly CoC-approved plan; procedural deviations without substantive prejudice cannot nullify a valid resolution process. Upholding the CoC's commercial wisdom, the Tribunal reasoned that invalidating Dorni's plan would restart the CIRP, eroding value and defeating the Code's objective of timely resolution. It set aside the NCLT's order, restored the CoC-approved plan, and directed the NCLT to revive the RP's pending application for formal approval under Section 31. The Tribunal also laid down guiding principles for conducting an "impact assessment" analysis in cases involving alleged breaches of IBC Regulations, material irregularity, collusion, or fraud in a CIRP.

Establishes an important distinction candidates should master: not every procedural deviation from the standard CIRP timeline is a "material irregularity" — the deviation must cause genuine, substantive prejudice to matter.

  1. Does a belated Expression of Interest, once condoned by the NCLT, automatically constitute "material irregularity" defeating a later-approved resolution plan?
    Show answer
    No — the NCLAT held that once the delay was already condoned by an earlier NCLT order, it could not be revisited later as a fresh irregularity; procedural deviations without substantive prejudice do not nullify a valid resolution process.
  2. What practical consequence did the NCLAT identify with invalidating a CoC-approved plan over such a minor procedural issue?
    Show answer
    It would effectively restart the CIRP, eroding the corporate debtor's value and defeating the Code's core objective of timely resolution.
  3. What relief did the NCLAT ultimately grant?
    Show answer
    It set aside the NCLT's order cancelling the CoC's approval, restored the CoC-approved resolution plan, and directed the NCLT to revive the RP's pending application for formal approval under Section 31.
  4. How does this case's approach to "material irregularity" contrast with Hindalco Industries Vs. Hirakud Industrial Works?
    Show answer
    This case shows a minor, already-remedied procedural deviation should not derail a valid, value-maximising process; Hindalco shows the opposite end of the spectrum — a genuinely fraudulent, collusively engineered CIRP that fully warranted quashing the resulting plan and imposing penalties. Together they illustrate the range of what does and doesn't count as serious irregularity.
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Case 75 of 89 · Composition of the IBBI Disciplinary CommitteeVerified
Rohit J. Vora Vs. Insolvency & Bankruptcy Board of India
Bombay High Court · Writ Petition (Lodging) No. 20352 of 2023

Rohit J. Vora, a registered Insolvency Professional, faced disciplinary proceedings before IBBI's Disciplinary Committee under Section 220 of the IBC. He challenged the very constitution of the Committee, arguing that a Disciplinary Committee comprising only a single Whole-Time Member of IBBI was not validly constituted to hear his case.

Vora filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court, contending that Section 220(1)'s proviso implicitly required more than one member to constitute a valid Disciplinary Committee.

The Bombay High Court (Division Bench) held that the proviso to Section 220(1) merely requires that members of the Disciplinary Committee be whole-time members of IBBI — it does not itself specify how many members are needed. While Section 220(1) governs this qualitative requirement, the numerical composition of the Committee is separately addressed by Regulation 2(1)(c) of the IBBI (Inspection and Investigation) Regulations, 2017 — a valid subordinate regulation that does not exceed what Section 220(1) itself provides. It is therefore permissible to constitute a Disciplinary Committee consisting of either a single whole-time member or more than one whole-time member. Vora's challenge to the single-member Committee's validity failed.

A practical, procedural clarification of how IBBI's Disciplinary Committee can validly be constituted — useful for any case study testing the legitimacy of disciplinary action taken against an Insolvency Professional.

  1. Does Section 220(1) of the IBC specify the number of members required to constitute a valid Disciplinary Committee?
    Show answer
    No — it only requires that members be whole-time members of IBBI; the numerical composition is separately addressed by Regulation 2(1)(c) of the IBBI (Inspection and Investigation) Regulations, 2017.
  2. Can a Disciplinary Committee consisting of a single whole-time member validly hear a matter under Section 220?
    Show answer
    Yes — the Bombay High Court held it is permissible to constitute a Disciplinary Committee with either a single whole-time member or more than one.
  3. Did the Bombay High Court find Regulation 2(1)(c) to be ultra vires (exceeding) Section 220(1)?
    Show answer
    No — it held the regulation does not travel beyond what Section 220(1) itself provides; it validly fills in an administrative detail the statute left unspecified.
  4. What broader principle about the relationship between statutes and subordinate regulations does this case illustrate?
    Show answer
    That a subordinate regulation can validly supply administrative or procedural detail left unaddressed by the parent statute, provided it does not exceed or contradict the statute's own express requirements.
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Case 76 of 89 · Liquidator Self-Dealing & Fee CircumventionVerified
Sundaresh Bhat Vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Delhi High Court · Neutral Citation 2024:DHC:4546 (challenging IBBI/DC/131/2022, dated 28 September 2022)

ABG Shipyard Limited entered CIRP on 1 August 2017; Sundaresh Bhat was appointed Interim Resolution Professional, later confirmed as Resolution Professional, and then as Liquidator following the CoC's decision to liquidate. During liquidation, Bhat appointed a firm in which he was himself a partner to provide support services for the liquidation process, and allowed that firm to raise bills higher than his own statutory Liquidator's fee. IBBI issued a Show Cause Notice under Section 220 of the IBC, and its Disciplinary Committee (Order No. IBBI/DC/131/2022, 28 September 2022) suspended Bhat's registration as an Insolvency Professional for two years. The Committee found that although the firm did not strictly qualify as a "related party" under Section 5(24), the real motive behind its appointment was to increase Bhat's own effective compensation by circumventing Regulation 4 of the Liquidation Process Regulations.

Bhat challenged the suspension order before the Delhi High Court by writ petition.

The Delhi High Court examined the fundamental purpose of a liquidator's role — to ensure maximum value is released from the sale of the company's assets, so creditors (financial institutions, public sector banks, employees, and others) are paid as fully as possible. The Court held that a liquidator cannot be permitted to dissipate the company's assets, as doing so would defeat the entire liquidation process. It substantially upheld IBBI's disciplinary reasoning, confirming that a liquidator's self-dealing arrangement to inflate his own effective compensation — even where the counterparty doesn't strictly meet the technical "related party" definition — is a serious contravention warranting disciplinary action.

A clear, real-world illustration of the ethical standards Insolvency Professionals are held to — directly relevant to the syllabus's Business and Professional Ethics weighting.

  1. Did the fact that Bhat's appointed firm did not technically qualify as a "related party" absolve him of misconduct?
    Show answer
    No — the Disciplinary Committee (and the Delhi High Court on review) found the real motive was to circumvent fee regulations and increase his own effective compensation, regardless of the technical related-party classification.
  2. What penalty did IBBI's Disciplinary Committee impose on Bhat?
    Show answer
    Suspension of his registration as an Insolvency Professional for a period of two years.
  3. What did the Delhi High Court identify as the core purpose of a liquidator's role?
    Show answer
    To ensure maximum value is released from selling the company's assets, so that creditors — including financial institutions, public sector banks, and employees — are paid as fully as possible.
  4. Why did the Court hold that a liquidator cannot be permitted to "dissipate" assets through arrangements like this?
    Show answer
    Because such dissipation directly depletes the value otherwise available for creditors, defeating the entire purpose of the liquidation process.
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Case 77 of 89 · RP Not a "Public Servant" — Prevention of Corruption ActVerified
Sanjay Kumar Agarwal Vs. Union of India
Jharkhand High Court · Criminal Revision No. 728 of 2023

Sanjay Kumar Agarwal, acting as a Resolution Professional, faced allegations/proceedings raising the question of whether an RP could be treated as a "public servant" for purposes of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 — specifically, whether Section 7 of that Act (which criminalises a public servant taking gratification other than legal remuneration) could be invoked against him in his capacity as RP.

The matter reached the Jharkhand High Court by way of a criminal revision, requiring the Court to determine whether an RP falls within the definition of "public servant" under Section 21 of the (then) Indian Penal Code or Section 2(c) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

The Jharkhand High Court held that a Resolution Professional is not listed among the categories of persons who qualify as "public servants" within the meaning of Section 21 of the IPC. It further held that Section 233 of the IBC — which protects Insolvency Professionals from liability for acts done in good faith while discharging their duties under the Code — applies to shield the RP. Since the RP does not qualify as a "public servant," provisions like Section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, which specifically target public servants, do not apply to an RP acting in that capacity.

Clarifies an important boundary: an RP's misconduct is addressed through IBBI's disciplinary machinery (as in Sundaresh Bhat), not through criminal "public servant" liability statutes designed for government officials.

  1. Is a Resolution Professional a "public servant" within the meaning of Section 21 of the IPC?
    Show answer
    No — the Jharkhand High Court held an RP is not listed among the categories of persons qualifying as public servants under that provision.
  2. Can Section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 be invoked against a Resolution Professional acting in that capacity?
    Show answer
    No — since that provision specifically targets public servants, and an RP does not qualify as one, it cannot be applied to an RP's conduct in that role.
  3. What protection does Section 233 of the IBC provide to Insolvency Professionals?
    Show answer
    It protects them from liability for acts done in good faith while discharging their duties or functions under the Code.
  4. How does this case's holding relate to the disciplinary outcome in Sundaresh Bhat Vs. IBBI?
    Show answer
    The two cases operate on different tracks — an RP's misconduct can still lead to disciplinary consequences through IBBI's own regulatory machinery (as happened to Sundaresh Bhat), even though the RP is not exposed to criminal "public servant" liability under statutes like the Prevention of Corruption Act.
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Case 79 of 89 · IBBI's Power to Charge Percentage-Based FeesVerified
CA V. Venkata Sivakumar Vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) & Ors.
Madras High Court · W.P. No. 13229 of 2020 (decided 3 November 2020)

CA V. Venkata Sivakumar, a Chartered Accountant registered as an Insolvency Professional, challenged Regulations 7(2)(ca) and 13(2)(ca) of the IBBI (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016, read with Section 196(1)(c) of the IBC — provisions under which IBBI charged registered IPs a fee equal to 0.25% of their remuneration received in the preceding financial year, in addition to an existing five-yearly registration fee. He argued Section 196 did not authorise fees based on remuneration or turnover, that the regulations involved excessive delegation, and that — since IBBI provided no specific service in return — the fee lacked any quid pro quo, violating Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution. He had earlier sought RTI information on how such fees were used, receiving only the response that IBBI treats the amount as general revenue income.

The writ petition was heard by a Division Bench of the Madras High Court (Chief Justice A.P. Sahi and Justice Senthilkumar Ramamoorthy).

The Court, relying on the Supreme Court's reasoning in the BSE Brokers' Forum case, held that strict quid pro quo — an itemised correlation between a specific service and a specific fee — is not a prerequisite for a valid regulatory fee; it is sufficient that there is a broad correlation between the services the regulator provides (in overseeing and regulating the profession generally) and the fee charged. It found no excessive delegation, holding Section 196(1)(c) validly empowered IBBI to frame such fee-related regulations without exceeding its delegated authority. The writ petition was dismissed, upholding the validity of the percentage-of-remuneration fee structure.

Confirms the legitimacy of a core plank of IBBI's funding model — directly relevant to understanding how the regulatory ecosystem for Insolvency Professionals is financed and governed.

  1. Is strict quid pro quo required for IBBI to validly charge a regulatory fee from Insolvency Professionals?
    Show answer
    No — the Court held it is sufficient if there is a broad correlation between the regulator's services and the fee charged; an itemised, service-specific correlation is not required.
  2. What was the basis of the fee Venkata Sivakumar challenged?
    Show answer
    A fee of 0.25% of the IP's remuneration received in the preceding financial year, charged in addition to an existing five-yearly registration fee.
  3. Did the Court find that Section 196(1)(c) of the IBC involved excessive delegation to IBBI in authorising this fee structure?
    Show answer
    No — it held the provision validly empowered IBBI to frame such fee-related regulations without exceeding its delegated authority.
  4. What Supreme Court precedent did the Madras High Court rely on for its quid pro quo reasoning?
    Show answer
    The BSE Brokers' Forum case, which established that a broad correlation between services and fees is sufficient for a valid regulatory fee.
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Case 80 of 89 · Validity of the Authorisation for Assignment RequirementVerified
CA Venkata Siva Kumar Vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India & Ors.
Madras High Court · W.P. No. 9132 of 2020 and W.M.P. No. 11134 of 2020 (decided 28 July 2020)

CA Venkata Sivakumar, a registered Insolvency Professional, challenged the constitutional validity of Regulations 7A and 13 of the IBBI (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016. Regulation 7A requires an IP to obtain an "Authorisation for Assignment" (AFA) from their Insolvency Professional Agency before accepting a new assignment — an additional, periodic authorisation layered on top of basic IP registration. The petitioner argued that once a person is validly registered as an IP, having met all necessary qualifications, they should not be required to continually obtain a separate AFA on an ongoing basis.

The writ petition and connected miscellaneous petition were heard by the same Division Bench (Chief Justice A.P. Sahi and Justice Senthilkumar Ramamoorthy) that decided the companion fee-validity case (Case 79) around the same period.

The Madras High Court dismissed the writ petition, upholding the validity of Regulations 7A and 13. The AFA requirement was found to be a legitimate, ongoing regulatory check consistent with IBBI's mandate to ensure Insolvency Professionals remain fit and proper for each specific assignment they undertake, rather than relying solely on a one-time registration event.

Confirms the validity of a practically significant, ongoing regulatory checkpoint — the AFA requirement — that every practising Insolvency Professional must navigate before accepting each new assignment.

  1. What is an "Authorisation for Assignment" (AFA), and who issues it?
    Show answer
    An authorisation an Insolvency Professional must obtain from their Insolvency Professional Agency before accepting a new assignment, required under Regulation 7A of the IP Regulations, 2016.
  2. Did the Madras High Court find the AFA requirement to be an invalid, unnecessary additional layer of regulation on top of IP registration?
    Show answer
    No — it upheld the validity of Regulations 7A and 13, treating the AFA requirement as a legitimate, ongoing check on an IP's fitness for each specific assignment.
  3. Why might a one-time registration event be considered insufficient without an ongoing AFA requirement?
    Show answer
    Because an IP's circumstances, conduct, and fitness can change over time; an ongoing authorisation check for each new assignment allows the regulatory framework to catch issues (like pending disciplinary proceedings or non-compliance) that may have arisen after initial registration.
  4. How does this case relate to the same petitioner's fee-validity challenge decided around the same time?
    Show answer
    Both cases were brought by the same petitioner against IBBI's regulatory framework and decided by the same bench in the same period — together they confirm the validity of two separate planks of IBBI's regulatory apparatus (fees and ongoing assignment authorisation).
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Case 82 of 89 · NCLT Cannot Declare IBC Regulations Ultra ViresVerified
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India Vs. State Bank of India & Ors.
Delhi High Court · W.P. (C) 10189/2018 & CM APPL. 39715/2018 (with connected LPA 566/2018)

During a Section 12(2) application by SBI seeking a 90-day CIRP extension, the NCLT noticed that an Expression of Interest (EoI) had been floated under Regulation 36A of the CIRP Regulations, 2016 — the mechanism splitting resolution plan invitation into a two-step EoI-then-plan process — but no plans had yet been filed. On its own motion, without any party having specifically challenged the regulation, the NCLT declared Regulation 36A ultra vires Section 240(1) of the IBC (order dated 5 September 2018), reasoning the two-step process added delay inconsistent with the Code's emphasis on speed.

IBBI, whose own regulation had been struck down, appealed via Letters Patent Appeal (LPA 566/2018). The Delhi High Court Division Bench granted an interim stay of the NCLT's order on 5 October 2018, meaning Regulation 36A continued to operate pending final resolution. A related writ petition (W.P.(C) 10189/2018) proceeded separately before a Single Judge, addressing the substantive jurisdictional question.

The Court reviewed IBBI's statutory functions under the IBC — including registration and supervision of insolvency professional agencies and professionals, investigation, and maintenance of data — and noted Section 240(1) expressly empowers IBBI to frame regulations consistent with the Code. While acknowledging that speed is a salient feature of the IBC (citing Innoventive Industries), the Court held that Regulation 36A's structured EoI process does not necessarily impede this objective, but is instead a valid, regulator-designed mechanism for orderly and transparent solicitation of resolution plans. Ultimately, the Court held that the jurisdiction to determine the validity and legality of Regulations framed under the IBC is not conferred upon the NCLT — the NCLT, being itself a creature of the IBC, cannot assume for itself the power to declare any provision of the Code or its Regulations illegal or ultra vires. That power belongs exclusively to a superior court exercising writ/constitutional jurisdiction. The NCLT's order was set aside to the extent it had declared Regulation 36A ultra vires.

Establishes a basic but important institutional principle: NCLT applies the IBC's regulatory framework, it does not sit in judgment over that framework's validity — that role belongs to the writ courts.

  1. Can the NCLT declare a Regulation framed by IBBI under the IBC to be ultra vires?
    Show answer
    No — the Delhi High Court held this jurisdiction is not conferred upon the NCLT; as a creature of the IBC itself, it cannot assume the power to declare the Code's own provisions or regulations illegal or ultra vires.
  2. Which body does have the power to determine the validity and legality of IBC Regulations?
    Show answer
    A superior court exercising writ or constitutional jurisdiction, such as a High Court — not the NCLT.
  3. What was the NCLT's stated reason for declaring Regulation 36A ultra vires in the first place?
    Show answer
    It reasoned that the two-step Expression of Interest process under Regulation 36A added delay inconsistent with the IBC's core emphasis on speed in the resolution process.
  4. How did the Delhi High Court respond to this speed-based rationale?
    Show answer
    It acknowledged speed as a salient feature of the IBC but held that Regulation 36A's structured process does not necessarily impede that objective — rather, it is a valid mechanism for orderly, transparent solicitation of resolution plans, and in any event, the NCLT lacked jurisdiction to make a vires determination regardless of its reasoning.
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Case 88 of 89 · IBBI's Disciplinary Reach & Parallel IPA/IBBI OversightVerified
CA V. Venkata Sivakumar Vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Madras High Court · W.P. No. 21186 of 2023 and W.M.R. No. 20596 of 2023 (decided 22 December 2023)

CA V. Venkata Sivakumar, acting as Liquidator of a corporate debtor, had been directed by the NCLT to explore a compromise or scheme under Section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013 — a route available during liquidation via Regulation 2B of the CIRP Regulations. While performing this role, he shared the corporate debtor's valuation report with prospective scheme proponents. On 3 July 2023, IBBI issued a show cause notice under Section 219 of the IBC, alleging breaches including Regulations 34(2) and 34(5) of the Liquidation Regulations; as an automatic consequence, his Authorisation for Assignment stood suspended under Regulation 23A — the very regulation whose validity he had unsuccessfully challenged years earlier in his first case (Case 80).

Sivakumar filed this writ petition seeking to quash the show cause notice, arguing IBBI lacked jurisdiction to discipline him for conduct performed while carrying out an NCLT-directed function, and that a similar complaint had already been considered and rejected by his own Insolvency Professional Agency (IIIPI).

The Madras High Court (Justice N. Seshasayee) held that IBBI does have jurisdiction under Section 218 of the IBC to initiate disciplinary proceedings, and that performing a role under NCLT's direction does not exempt an Insolvency Professional from IBBI's regulatory oversight — since exploring a Section 230 compromise during liquidation is itself contemplated within the IBC's own scheme via Regulation 2B, it does not place the liquidator's conduct beyond IBBI's reach. The Court further held that a prior rejection of a similar complaint by the IPA does not preclude IBBI from independently pursuing its own disciplinary action on the same or related conduct — IBBI and IPAs can exercise parallel oversight. The Court found a prima facie ground existed for the show cause notice, given the petitioner's own admission that he had shared the valuation report with prospective scheme proponents.

Confirms two important, exam-relevant principles at once: that NCLT-directed conduct doesn't place an IP beyond IBBI's disciplinary reach, and that IBBI and an IP's own IPA can pursue genuinely independent oversight over the same underlying conduct.

  1. Does performing a function under an NCLT direction exempt an Insolvency Professional from IBBI's disciplinary jurisdiction?
    Show answer
    No — the Madras High Court held that exploring a Section 230 compromise during liquidation is itself contemplated within the IBC's scheme, and performing it under NCLT's direction does not place the IP's conduct beyond IBBI's regulatory reach.
  2. Does a prior rejection of a complaint by an IP's own IPA prevent IBBI from independently pursuing disciplinary action on the same conduct?
    Show answer
    No — the Court held IBBI and IPAs can exercise parallel, independent oversight; an IPA's earlier rejection does not preclude IBBI from separately initiating its own proceedings.
  3. What conduct specifically triggered IBBI's show cause notice against the petitioner?
    Show answer
    Sharing the corporate debtor's valuation report with prospective scheme proponents while acting as Liquidator.
  4. Why did the Court find a prima facie ground for the show cause notice to proceed?
    Show answer
    Because the petitioner himself admitted having shared the valuation report — the factual basis for the notice was not seriously disputed, only its legal propriety, which the Court resolved in IBBI's favour.
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